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QuantumATK => General Questions and Answers => Topic started by: pengdou on December 14, 2010, 10:43

Title: a question about the conductance under finite biases
Post by: pengdou on December 14, 2010, 10:43

Dear everyone,
   In former post,"http://quantumwise.com/forum/index.php?topic=203.0",I guess the author obtained the conductance under bias in

Fig.3 by taking the value of transmission coefficient at E=0 according to each finite bias? Although,both fig.3 and fig.4 showed

the conductance variations under bias, they are far different. Which one is meanlingful?  Is it appropriate to consider the value

of transmission coefficient  at E=0 which is the average value of fermi levels of two electrodes?
    Any comment will be appreciated!!!

Title: Re: a question about the conductance under finite biases
Post by: kstokbro on December 14, 2010, 13:05

Under bias you should calculate the differential conductance, dI/dV.
Thus, calculate current as function of voltage and take the derivative of that curve.
In ATK10.8 there is a custom analyzer, iv curve that can do this for you.
Check out the tutorial:
http://www.quantumwise.com/documents/tutorials/ATKTutorialDevice/XHTML/chap.iv.html#sect1.iv.curve

Enjoy :)

Title: Re: a question about the conductance under finite biases
Post by: pengdou on December 14, 2010, 15:42

Quote from: kstokbro on December 14, 2010, 13:05

Under bias you should calculate the differential conductance, dI/dV.
Thus, calculate current as function of voltage and take the derivative of that curve.
In ATK10.8 there is a custom analyzer, iv curve that can do this for you.
Check out the tutorial:
http://www.quantumwise.com/documents/tutorials/ATKTutorialDevice/XHTML/chap.iv.html#sect1.iv.curve

Enjoy :)

Thanks for your help!