Dear Quantumwise experts,
I am calculating the inelastic transmission spectrum of a GNR p-n junction (see attached python file for the configuration) using the InelasticTransmissionSpectrum method in ATK.
First I calculated the Transmission spectrum and PLDOS without the e-ph interaction, which gives a current I = -8.3168 e-5 nA. As shown In the attached image that from the spectral current and Projected Local Density of States it can be noticed the major current contribution is from the tunneling near the Fermi level. So I am expecting the sum current (elastic+inelastic) from the InelasticTransmissionSpectrum is several magnitudes larger than that from the TransmissionSpectrum as is shown in the case study of
https://docs.quantumwise.com/tutorials/inelastic_current_in_si_pn_junction/inelastic_current_in_si_pn_junction.htmlI just wonder that is it possible to get a reasonable current by just taking one or a few representative energy points in the InelasticTransmissionSpectrum method parameter setup, e.g. 0 eV or (-0.05, 0, 0.05)*eV ?
Since the spectral current at these energies is largest.
I have the InelasticTransmissionSpectrum sum current for 0 eV which is -1.38e-4 nA (one magnitude larger than the non-interacting case) and for (-0.05, 0, 0.05)*eV which is -5.84e-5 nA. (slightly smaller than the non-interacting case)
They are quite different, but which one is more accurate? Or maybe neither?
Thank you!
Happy New Year!